I have stated this before, and the sooner somebody within the industry sorts it out the better.
TO's always claim when it gets to paying compensation due to something going wrong in resort that 40% of the total holiday package cost is contributable to flight cost. That argument in itself is flawed as you can purchase a holiday for £1000 per person or a holiday for £2000 per person to the same resort staying in a different hotel. How can £400 for the 1st holiday and £800 for the 2nd holiday be attributed towards flight cost when you're sitting on the same plane in the same class of flight
And now we have the rediculous situation where these same TO's are claiming that only £60 or £80 is contributable to flight cost for the same flight and same holiday
Would be interested to hear from those employed in the travel industry how such claims can ever stand up in court!
Mark